Q1. Mahmud Gawan was the Prime Minister in:

(a) Gujarat kingdom     

(b) Kingdom of Kashmir

(c) Bahmani kingdom  

(d) Kingdom of Mysore

Q2. Chanhu-Daro is connected as excavation site of the civilisation of:

(a) Indus Valley Civilisation        

(b) Sumerians

(c) Mesopotamians                       

(d) Vedic Aryan

Q3. Which of the following is the most important cause for the decline of Buddhism after Ashoka?

(a) Non-religious practices in Buddhist centres

(b) Condemnation of animal sacrifices

(c) Non-patronage by the kings

(d) Allegiance to the middle path

Q4. Megasthenes visited the court of:

(a) Bimbisara                              

(b) Harsha

(c) Chandragupta Maurya    

(d) Harshvardhan

Q5. Which of the following statements is not correct about Nalanda University?

(a) It was an ancient Buddhist learning centre.

(b) A Chinese Hiuen Tsang studied here.

(c) We came to know about it only through the writings of Chinese pilgrims.

(d) None of the above.

Q6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya killed the Saka

(b) Samudragupta is known as Indian Napoleon

(c) Skandagupta defeated Huns

(d) Kumargupta restored the embankment of Sundarsana Lake

Q7. Who among the following accepted Din-illahi?

(a) Raja Man Singh            

(b) Birbal

(c) Raja Tansen                   

(d) Raja Todar mal

Q8. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The village was the basic unit of Chola administration.

(b) The Chola kingdom was on the decline in the 9th century.

(c) Amoghavarsha is the best remembered of the Chola kings.

(d) None of the above

Q9. Who had founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784?

(a) Lord Clive                 

(b) Lord Warren Hastings

(c) Queen Victoria       

(d) William Jones

Q10. The London branch of the All India Muslim League was established in 1908 under the presidency of:

(a) Agha Khan                   

(b) Ameer Ali

(c) Liaquat Ali Khan          

(d) M.A. Jinnah

Q11. Who among the following Governor General introduced the Dual System of Government?

(a) Lord Wellesley           

(b) Lord Canning

(c) Lord Clive                        

(d) Lord Rippon

Q12. Which of the following pairs is correct?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi      — “Swaraj is my birth right”

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru      — “Truth and non-violence are my God”

(c) Sardar Patel                — “Dilli Chalo”

(d) S. C. Bose                      — “Give me blood, I will give you freedom”

Q13. Which of the following is not true about Mughal army?

(a) Mughal army was mainly standing army.

(b) It had large cavalry.

(c) When Mughal army used to come out, it seemed as if population of a big city is emerging.

(d) It had large infantry.

Q14. The following are the events in national movement:

1. Champaran Satyagraha

2. Non-cooperation Movement

3. Quit India Movement

4. Dandi March

The correct chronological order is:

(a) 1-2-4-3                          

(b) 2-1-3-4

(c) 3-2-1-4                       

(d) 2-3-1-4

Q15. Which of the following was mainly responsible for the transfer of power by the British to India on August 15, 1947?

(a) Cabinet Mission Plan

(b) Attlee Declaration

(c) Simon Commission Plan

(d) Mountbatten Declaration

Q16. What is the correct chronological order of the following?

1. First Round Table Conference

2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

3. Simon Commission

4. Cripps Mission

(a) 3-1-2-4                          

(b) 1-2-3-4

(c) 2-1-3-4                        

(d) 4-3-2-1

Q17. What was the objective of Home Rule Movement?

(a) Self-government at all levels

(b) Eradication of evils like Sati

(c) Participation in Indian National Movement

(d) Boycott of foreign goods

Q18. Sultanates of Delhi have taken which of the following in their buildings from the ancient architecture?

(a) Mehrab                     

(b) Arched openings

(c) Gumbaj                         

(d) Decoration figures

Q19. Whose tomb among the following is not located in India?

(a) Akbar                             

(b) Humayun

(c) Jahangir                       

(d) Itmad-ud-Duala

Q20. The worship of idols started in India in:

(a) Pre-Aryan Age           

(b) Gupta Age

(c) Mauryan Age              

(d) Kushan Age

Q21. Purna Swaraj Day was observed on:

(a) 26th November, 1947

(b) 26th October, 1949

(c) 26th January, 1950

(d) 26th January, 1930

Q22. Who can be called the father of local self-government in India?

(a) Lord Rippon                

(b) Lord Minto

(c) Lord Curzon             

(d) Lord Dufferin

Q23. The first great experiment of Gandhiji in ‘Satyagraha’ took place in:

(a) Dandi                           

(b) Champaran

(c) South Africa               

(d) Bardoli

Q24. The demand for Pakistan was made by the Muslim League for the first time in:

(a) 1938                               

(b) 1940

(c) 1941                                 

(d) 1946

Q25. The great philosopher Shankaracharya preached:

(a) Dvaita                          

(b) Advaita

(c) Hinduism                     

(d) Altruism

Q26. The two branches of a plant give two different fruits. This can be explained:

(a) By hybridisation

(b) By grafting one with the other

(c) By nature’s freak

(d) By (a) or (c) mentioned above

Q27. The function of the liver is to:

(a) Promote digestion of food

(b) Promote respiration

(c) Store glucose as glycogen

(d) None of these

Q28. In summer, man with excess perspiration feels weak, because of the:

(a) Loss of more water through evaporation

(b) Loss of salts through evaporation

(c) Loss of carbohydrates through evaporation

(d) All factors mentioned above

Q29. Temperature in human beings is controlled by:

(a) Pituitary gland       

(b) Hypothalamus gland

(c) Thyroid gland         

(d) Adrenal gland

Q30. The major ingredient of leather is:

(a) Collagen                       

(b) Polymer

(c) Carbohydrate             

(d) Nucleic acid

Q31. Green plants in the sea are useful for the respiration of fish because:

(a) it releases oxygen

(b) it gives out carbon dioxide

(c) it gives out oxygen and carbon dioxide simultaneously

(d) it takes oxygen and give out carbon dioxide

Q32. The temperature for pasteurisation of milk is selected to:

(a) Kill the micro-organisms

(b) Kill all bacteria

(c) Store it for long time without coagulation

(d) Kill the micro-organisms and other harmful bacteria

Q33. What is the most important factor for the growth of pests in stored grains?

(a) The moisture of grains

(b) The temperature of grains

(c) The moisture and temperature of grains

(d) None of the above

Q34. Which of the following is/are found in plant cells but not in those of animals?

(a) Plastid & Cellular wall

(b) Chromosome

(c) Mitochondria & Golgi apparatus

(d) Cell wall & lysozyme

Q35. Helium is used for respiration in deep water instead of nitrogen because:

(a) It is heavier than nitrogen

(b) It is lighter than nitrogen

(c) It mixes less in blood than nitrogen

(d) It helps oxygen burn more quickly

Q36. Neem tree has acquired industrial importance as a source of:

(a) bio-pesticide and antifertility compound

(b) antifertility compound, bio-fertilizer and anticancer drug

(c) biofertilizer, bio-pesticide and antifertility compound

(d) anticancer drug, bio-pesticide and biofertilizer

Q37. Retina in the eyes acts as a ____ in the camera:

(a) Lens                               

(b) Shutter

(c) Film                                

(d) None of these

Q38. Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other inner parts of the body is based on the phenomenon of:

(a) polarisation         

(b) interference

(c) diffraction             

(d) total internal reflection

Q39. When ants bite, they inject:

(a) glacial acetic acid       

(b) ethanol

(c) formic acid                      

(d) stearic acid

Q40. Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the roots of higher plants?

(a) Biofertilizer                 

(b) Coralloid root

(c) Lichen                          

(d) Mycorrhiza

Q41. The minor planets revolving between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called:

(a) Asteroids                     

(b) Comets

(c) Meteors                     

(d) Nova’s

Q42. Match the following:

(Oceanic Trench)              (Location)

A. Aleutian                       1. Indian Ocean

B. Kermadec                   2. North Pacific Ocean

C. Sunda                           3. South Pacific Ocean

D. S. Sandwich                4. South Atlantic Ocean

      A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 4 1

(d) 2 3 4 1

Q43. Match the following:

             List I                                      List II

A. Mushroom Rocks      1. Fold type

B. Cape Verde                2. Low latitude desert

C. Thar                               3. Volcanic

D. Vosges                         4. Wind erosion

     A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 3 2 4 1

(c) 2 4 1 3

(d) 4 3 2 1

Q44. Trade winds are caused by the:

(a) Revolution of the earth

(b) Rotation of the earth

(c) In flowing movement of air along the earth’s surface towards the equator

(d) None of the above

Q45. Match the following:

              List I                                       List II

A. Fissure eruption            1. Alluvial soils

B. Anti-clinorium belt       2. Black soils

C. Sea of Tethys                 3. Himalayan mountain

D. Tsang-po                       4. Brahmaputra

     A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 1 2 3 4

(d) 3 2 4 1

Q46. Which one of the following industries is not a raw material localised industry?

(a) Cotton Textile Industry     

(b) Sugar Industry

(c) Cement Industry                 

(d) Glass Industry

Q47. Which hydro-electric project produces maximum power energy?

(a) Bhakra Nangal                 

(b) Koyna

(c) Hirakud                                

(d) Salal

Q48. “Lateritic Soil” is found in India in:

(a) Western Ghats                   

(b) Eastern Ghats

(c) Deccan Plateau                 

(d) Satpura Region

Q49. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases:

(a) If high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant

(b) If frost occurs during the period of ripening

(c) If there is fluctuation in temperature during the period of growth of the plant

(d) If there is high temperature during the time of ripening

Q50. Which among the following States possesses oil resources based on geographical location?

(a) Kerala                   

(b) Nagaland

(c) Assam                       

(d) Meghalaya

Q51. A fertile soil, suitable for growing common crops, is likely to have a pH value of:

(a) Three                              

(b) four

(c) six to seven                       

(d) nine to ten

Q52. the ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are:

(a) Rainfall above 100 cm, temperature above 25°C.

(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period.

(c) Rainfall below 100 cm, temperature below 25°C.

(d) Warm and dry climate during the entire crop period.

Q53. The interior regions of Eurasia have a large number of inland seas or lakes. Which one of the following touches the boundary of Iran?

(a) Aral Sea                   

(b) Lake Balkhash

(c) Lake Baikal              

(d) Caspian Sea

Q54. Which country possesses the greatest area of forest in World?

(a) China                         

(b) Russia

(c) USA                              

(d) Canada

Q55. During a flight from Tokyo to Mumbai the following are the landing airports:

1. Hong Kong

2. Hanoi

3. Taipei

4. Bangkok

The correct sequence of the landing at these airports during an onward journey is:

(a) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3                   

(b) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

(c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4                    

(d) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2

Q56. Unemployment insurance will result in:

(a) Increase in savings

(b) Decrease in consumption level

(c) Decrease in savings

(d) Maintenance of consumption level

Q57. States earn more revenue directly through which of the following taxes?

(a) Good & Services Tax         

(b) Custom Duties

(c) Excise Duties                         

(d) Income Tax

Q58. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the:

(a) Ministry of Finance

(b) NITI Aayog

(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Q59. What is a Scheduled Bank?

(a) A bank having Rs. 1000 crore deposits.

(b) A bank included in the Second Schedule of the RBI.

(c) A bank having Rs. 10 Lakh crore deposits.

(d) A bank having Rs. 500 crore deposits.

Q60. Which of the following pairs is Not correct?

(a) SEBI gives Short term financing.

(b) NABARD does rural financing.

(c) RBI gives Long term financing.

(d) RRB Dispensing rural credit.

Q61. What is Government’s trade policy?

(a) Export promotion       

(b) Import substitution

(c) Both a & b above        

(d) None of the above

Q62. Buyers’ market denotes the place where:

(a) The demand and supply are well balanced

(c) The supply exceeds the demand

(b) Commodities are available at competitive rates

(d) The demand exceeds the supply

Q63. Consumer welfare is indicated by:

(a) Household Savings

(b) Disposable income

(c) Consumer Expenditure

(d) None of the above

Q64. Rolling Plan can be best defined in context of India as:

(a) Formulation of annual plans

(b) Perspective of Five-Year Plan with the provision of extending by one year at a time so that there would be a constant planning horizon of five years

(c) Aims and achievements reviewed every year in a Five-Year Plan

(d) Plan for full 5 years

Q65. “Gresham’s Law” in Economics relates to:

(a) Supply and demand

(b) Circulation of currency

(c) Consumption and supply

(d) Distribution of goods and services

Q66. Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is known as:

(a) Seasonal unemployment

(b) Frictional unemployment

(c) Technological unemployment

(d) Cyclical unemployment

Q67. Sudden decrease of birth rate would cause:

(a) Increase in investment

(b) Increase in per capita income                

(c) Increase of savings

(d) Increase in production

Q68. Mr. Ram Nath Kovind is the ______ President of the Republic of India.

(a) 10th                   

(b) 11th

(c) 14th                   

(d) 13th

Q69. Where is the Naval Air Station “Garud” situated?

(a) New Delhi                

(b) Cochin

(c) Chennai                   

(d) Dehradun

Q70. Which of the country is not the member of G-8 Association?

(a) India               

(b) Germany

(c) Japan             

(d) Canada

Q71. Which country’s government report is known as a yellow book?

(a) France                  

(b) Britain

(c) Italy                       

(d) Germany

Q72. When was Indian Life Insurance Corporation established?

(a) 1956                      

(b) 1544

(c) 1950                      

(d) 1947

Q73. Who was the inventor of radar?

(a) Robert Watson               

(b) Fleming

(c) Bush Wall                          

(d) Austin

Q74. Among the following foreigners who was given Bharat Ratna?

(a) Nelson Mandela            

(b) Bill Clinton

(c) Adolf Hitler                       

(d) Boris Yeltsin

Q75. With which of the following fields Pulitzer award associated?

(a) Journalism                  

(b) Science

(c) Sports                            

(d) Industry

Q76. Which of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?

(a) Germany                         

(b) France

(c) Great Britain                   

(d) China

Q77. ‘ASEAN’ stands for:

(a) Academy of South-East Asian Nations

(b) Association of South-East African Nations

(c) Association of South-East Asian Nations

(d) None of the Above

Q78. The great Indian bustard is a:

(a) Animal            

(b) Reptile

(c) Bird                   

(d) Mammal

Q79. Which of the following correctly matched?

National Parks/Sanctuaries         Location

1. Ghana                                              — Assam

2. Gir                                                     — Rajasthan

3. Manas                                             — Assam

4. Dudhwa                                          — U.P.

5. Periyar                                             — Kerala

Choose the correct answer from option(s) given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4              

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5               

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Q80. Which of the following statements about ozone layer is correct?

(a) It converts UV radiations into electrical energy.

(b) It protects the earth’s life forms by preventing the damaging UV radiations from reaching earth’s surface.

(c) It is of uniform thickness.

(d) None of the above.

Q81. Corals is/are:

(a) A particular type of shell found near some of the seacoasts.

(b) A special variety of fish which live in shells.

(c) The tiny animals that live in shells in the sea.

(d) The remains of tiny sea animals resembling shells

Q82. Deforestation results in:

1. Flora destruction

2. Fauna destruction

3. Ecological misbalance

(a) 1, 2 and 3                

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3                     

(d) 2 and 3

Q83. As compared to the mammals, birds are less sensitive to temporary deficit of water, because:

(a) The water requirement per unit weight is less in birds than in mammals.

(b) Absorption of water from the gut is more efficient in birds than in mammals.

(c) Urea excretion in mammals entails a greater loss of water than that in birds.

(d) None of these

Q84. Of the various wildlife and forest observation schemes undertaken with world aid funds in India, which one has been the most successful project?

(a) Project Tiger

(b) Mangroves arid land development

(c) Development of national parks

(d) Conservation of forests in Tarai region

Q85. Consider the Food Pyramid given below showing the interdependence of plants and animals in the food chain. Which one of the following in the pyramid is most delicately balanced in the chain?

(a) Herbivore                          

(b) Plant

(c) Top Carnivore                  

(d) Small Carnivore

Q86. Which one of the following is the best strategy for environment friendly sustainable development in Indian agriculture?

(a) Expansion of cultivable land, increased use of superphosphate, urea and effective biocides

(b) Wider popularization of high yielding crop varieties, better and more frequent irrigation and increased frequency of aerial sprays of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides

(c) Mixed cropping, organic manures, nitrogen fixing plants and pest resistant crop varieties

(d) Improved farm implements and machinery, use of potent insecticides to minimise post-harvest grain losses and mono culture cropping practices

Q87. Consider the following:

1. Rice fields

2. Coal mining

3. Domestic animals

4. Wetlands

Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?

(a) 1 and 4 only                   

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only                

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q88. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

(a) Part I of the Constitution

(b) Part II of the Constitution

(c) Part III of the Constitution

(d) Part IV of the Constitution

Q89. Acts and Regulations validated by Article 31B are specified in _____ of the Constitution:

(a) Concurrent List             

(b) State List

(c) Union List                         

(d) Ninth Schedule

Q90. Which of the following States has no Panchayati Raj setup?

(a) Nagaland                 

(b) Assam

(c) Kerala                        

(d) West Bengal

Q91. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment?

(a) Article 24                     

(b) Article 45

(c) Article 330                   

(d) Article 368

Q92. Judges of a High Court are appointed by the President with the consent of the:

(a) Governor

(b) Governor, the Chief justice of India and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned

(c) Governor and the preceding Chief Justice of the High court

(d) None of these

Q93. President of India is elected by:

(a) Elected representatives of Lok Sabha

(b) Elected representatives of Rajya Sabha

(c) Elected representatives of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies

(d) People directly

Q94. Governor of which State has been entrusted with the special powers for the administration of tribal areas?

(a) Bihar               

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Assam            

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Q95. It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our Constitution lies in:

(a) Preamble

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Fundamental Duties

(d) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q96. Absolute majority means ______ per cent of votes.

(a) 51                       

(b) 66

(c) 75                       

(d) 80

Q97. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after?

(a) It is Passed by the lower Houses

(b) The President has given his assent

(c) The Prime Minister has signed it

(d) The Supreme Court gives accent to it.

Q98. A High Court Judge addresses his letter of resignation to?

(a) The President

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Chief justice of High Court

(d) The Governor of the State

Q99. In which House is the Presiding Officer not a member of that House?

(a) Lok Sabha                   

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Vidhan Sabha            

(d) Vidhan Parishad

Q100. If the positions of the president and Vice-President are vacant, who officiates as the President of India?

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Chief justice of India

(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) None of these