Free Mock Test - 3

No. of Questions: 100                             Time: 2 Hrs

Number of Questions: 100

Time: 2 Hours

Q1. The concept of welfare state is included in the Constitution of India in:

(a) Preamble

(b) Fundamental Rights

(c) Fourth Schedule

(d) Directive Principles of State Policy


Q2. Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution contains:

(a) Forms of oaths and Affirmations

(b) Lists of the salaries of officials

(c) A list of 22 Schedule languages

(d) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha


Q3. The maximum revenue source of village panchayat is:

(a) Government grants

(b) Sales tax

(c) Voluntary help by village cooperatives

(d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals


Q4. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to:

(a) Freedom of trade and profession

(b) Equality before the Law

(c) Protection of life and personal liberty

(d) Freedom of religion


Q5. the appointment of the Judges of Supreme Court is done by:

(a) The Prime Minister on the advice of the Union Cabinet

(b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

(c) The Prime Minister in consultation with the Chief Justice

(d) The President in consultation with the Law Commission of India


Q6. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in:

(a) 2 years               

(b) 3 years

(c) 6 years               

(d) it is never dissolved


Q7. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if:

(a) he himself is a candidate

(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature

(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State legislature

(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister


Q8. Democracy exists in India. Government is run by the elected representatives of the people. For proper functioning of this system:

(a) One should cast vote in elections

(b) One must be prompt in paying taxes

(c) One must be good to himself and to the society

(d) None of these


Q9. By which Amendment to the Constitution, the Fundamental Duties of the citizens were specified?

(a) 38th             

(b) 40th

(c) 42nd            

(d) 44th


Q10. What does Mandamus means:

(a) A writ issued by a superior court command that a specified thing be done.

(b) A legal term for a prisoner’s right to appear in person and be tried in court.

(c) A written public declaration of the intentions, opinions or motives of a sovereign or of a leader, party or body.

(d) The principle of hybridisation, discovered by Gregor Mendel which led to the improved breeds of plant and animal life.


Q11. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include:

(a) Chief presidency magistrate

(b) Sessions judge

(c) Tribunal judge

(d) Chief Judge of a small cause court


Q12. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?

(a) Population control and family planning

(b) Public health and sanitation

(c) Capitation taxes

(d) Treasure trove


Q13. Primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:

(a) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the States

(b) Prepare the Annual Budget

(c) Advise the President on financial matters

(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments


Q14. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the G-8 Group?

(a) France            

(b) Italy

(c) Spain              

(d) Germany


Q15. Mr. Venkaiah Naidu is the ____ Vice-President of India.

(a) 10th                  

(b) 11th

(c) 12th                  

(d) 13th


Q16. Which date is known as ‘Diabetes Day’?

(a) 14th February            

(b) 14th May

(c) 14th September        

(d) 14th November


Q17. The headquarters of International Court of Justice is at:

(a) Hague               

(b) New York

(c) Geneva            

(d) Paris


Q18. Which of the following games is Radha Mohan Cup associated with?

(a) Polo                 

(b) Football/Soccer

(c) Cricket            

(d) Tennis


Q19. In which year was the new currency ‘Euro’ introduced to the world?

(a) 1996                     

(b) 1997

(c) 1998                     

(d) 1999


Q20.  ____ carries 40 percent of road traffic of India.

(a) National Highway             

(b) State Highway

(c) District Highway                

(d) Rural Highway


Q21. What is the percentage of seats reserved for women in the Parliament of Bangladesh?

(a) Nil                                 

(b) 15 percent

(c) 30 percent                

(d) 45 percent


Q22. According to the report of World Bank, more than 50 percent poor persons in India live in these four states?

(a) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa

(b) Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa

(c) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Orissa

(d) Bihar, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir


Q23. The mobile court in India is the brainchild of:

(a) Justice Bhagwati

(b) Mr. Rajeev Gandhi

(c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil


Q24. Consider the following animals of India:

1. Crocodile

2. Elephant

Which of these is/are endangered species?

(a) Only 1                             

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2                 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q25. The sea coast of which one of the following states has become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles from South America?

(a) Goa                     

(b) Gujarat

(c) Orissa                     

(d) Tamil Nadu


Q26. Which of the following strongly threatens biodiversity?

(a) Fragile ecosystems such as mangroves and wetlands

(b) Inaccessible habitats in Himalayas

(c) Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation and shifting cultivation

(d) Creation of biosphere reserves


Q27. The greatest diversity of animal and plant species occurs in:

(a) Temperate deciduous forests.

(b) Tropical moist forests

(c) Heavily polluted rivers

(d) Deserts and savannas


Q28. Consider the following:

1. Photosynthesis.

2. Respiration.

3. Decay of organic matter.

4. Volcanic action.

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on earth?

(a) 1 and 4                      

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4                 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Q29. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere reserves

(b) National parks

(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar convention

(d) Wildlife sanctuaries


Q30. Consider the following statements regarding environment issues of India:

1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves.

2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan.

3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non formal education in environment and conservation.

4. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralised information network for environmental information.

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4              

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3                 

(d) 1, 3 and 4


Q31. Match the following:

        (Mangrove)                    (State)

A. Achra Ratnagiri           1. Karnataka

B. Coondapur                   2. Kerala

C. Pichavaram                 3. Tamil Nadu

D. Vembanad                   4. Maharashtra

      A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 4 1 3 2


Q32. Which one of the following is not a lagoon?

(a) Ashtamudi lake           

(b) Chilka lake

(c) Periyar lake                   

(d) Pulicat lake


Q33. Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in:

(a) Eastern Orissa

(b) North-Eastern Tamil Nadu

(c) Siwalik and Terai region

(d) Western Andhra Pradesh


Q34. The difference between a bank and a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFI) is that:

(a) a bank interacts directly with customers while an NBFI interacts with banks and governments.

(b) a bank indulges in a number of activities relating to finance with a range of customers, while an NBFI is mainly concerned with the term loan needs of large enterprises.

(c) a bank deals with both internal and international customers while an NBFI is mainly concerned with the finances of foreign companies.

(d) a bank’s main interest is to help in business transactions and savings/ investment activities while an NBFI’s main interest is in the stabilisation of the currency


Q 35. The market for government securities or the securities guaranteed by the government. Since government cannot default on its payment obligations, the government securities are risk free and hence known as “gilt-edged” – which means ‘of the best quality’.

(a) Increase employment in rural areas

(b) Increase unemployment

(c) Give blow to the growth of large-scale industries

(d) Provide opportunities for workers’ participation in management


Q36. Mixed economy refers to:

(a) The coexistence of heavy, small scale and cottage industries

(b) The promotion of agriculture as well as cottage industries

(c) The coexistence of rich as well as poor

(d) Coexistence of public as well as private sector


Q37. Among the reasons for disguised unemployment in rural areas is:

(a) Choice of a heavy industry model for economic development

(b) Low levels of technological development in the country

(c) Heavy pressure of population along with half-hearted implementation of agrarian reforms

(d) High illiteracy rates


Q38. Zero Based Budgeting (ZBB) lays emphasis on:

1. Unlimited deficit financing.

2. Preparing new Budget, right from the scratch.

3. Preparing the Budget neglecting history of the expenditure.

(a) 1, 2 and 3               

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3                  

(d) 1 and 2


Q39. Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means:

(a) the sum of budgetary deficit and net increase in internal and external borrowings

(b) the difference between current expenditure and current revenue

(c) the sum of monetized deficit and budgetary deficit

(d) net increase in Union Government’s borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India


Q40. Bank Rate implies the rate of interest:

(a) paid by the Reserve Bank of India on the Deposits of Commercial Banks

(b) charged by Banks on loans and advances

(c) payable on Bonds

(d) at which the Reserve Bank of India discounts the Bills of Exchange


Q41. Deficit financing means:

(a) An excess of governments’ current expenditure over its current revenue

(b) An excess of government expenditures minus borrowings other than those from the RBI

(c) An excess of government’s total expenditure over its total revenue

(d) An excess of government revenue over expenditure


Q42. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if:

(a) He can fulfil his need with a given level of income

(b) He can live in full comforts with a given level of income

(c) He can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items

(d) He can locate new sources of income


Q43. Multinational means:

(a) A person having passports and visas of many countries

(b) A person having property in many countries

(c) A person holding citizenship of many countries

(d) A company operating in more than one country


Q44. The structural changes in exports means:

(a) Change in the commodities of export.

(b) Increasing exports along with the imports.

(c) Increasing imports.

(d) Change in the commodities of imports.


Q45. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called:

(a) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)

(b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)

(c) CBR (Central Bank Reserve)

(d) CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)


Q46. Age of a tree can be determined:

(a) By counting the number of rings

(b) By thickness of the bark

(c) By bulk of the tree

(d) By number of leaves


Q47. Decomposition of organic matter is caused due to:

(a) Fungi                       

(b) Virus

(c) Bacteria                 

(d) both (a) and (c)


Q48. Carbohydrates, proteins and vitamins which are responsible for energy, growth and vitality are obtained respectively from:

(a) Cereals, Meat and Fruits               

(b) Milk, pulses and cereals

(c) Milk, pulses and vegetables          

(d) Pulses, vegetables and cereals


Q49. The chief ingredient of the mosquito repellent cream is derived from:

(a) Tulsi                     

(b) Neem

(c) Lemon                

(d) Rice bran


Q50. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:

1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel.

2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases.

3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries.

4. It is usually lower in women than in men.

Of these statements;

(a) 1, 2 and 4               

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3                

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Q51. The growth of seedling plants after transplantation will not always be proper because:

(a) New soil may not contain the required minerals

(b) Roots cannot penetrate deep into the soil

(c) During transplantation root hairs get damaged

(d) All factors stated above


Q52. Vitamin C is also known as:

(a) Folic acid                 

(b) Ascorbic acid

(c) Niacin                       

(d) Acetic acid


Q53. Plants appear green due to the presence of:

(a) Chlorophyll                 

(b) Sugar

(c) Mitochondria              

(d) Xylem


Q54. Rickets is caused due to:

(a) Deficiency of Vitamin C

(b) Deficiency of Vitamin A

(c) Deficiency of Vitamin D

(d) Low intake of proteins


Q55. Which of the following is an insecticide?

(a) TNT                         

(b) DDT

(c) Salicylic acid      

(d) Ammonium phosphate


Q56. Antigen is a substance which:

(a) lowers body temperature

(b) destroys harmful bacteria

(c) triggers the immune system

(d) is used as an antidote to poison


Q57. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains:

(a) polyunsaturated fatty acids

(b) saturated fatty acids

(c) essential vitamins

(d) more carbohydrates and proteins


Q58. Which one of the following types of microorganisms is most widely used in industries?

(a) Bacteria and fungi

(b) Bacteria

(c) Bacteria, microalgae and fungi

(d) Bacteria and algae


Q59. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is not correct?

(a) Both of them are of plant origin

(b) Both of them are polymers

(c) Both of them give colour with iodine

(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules


Q60. The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called:

(a) aerobic respiration

(b) anaerobic respiration

(c) glycolysis

(d) hydrolysis


Q61. Largest producer of diamonds and gems in the world is:

(a) Canada                

(b) Russia

(c) Botswana             

(d) South Africa


Q62. Iron ore mines are in which of the following group of places?

(a) Bokaro, Balaghat, Hazaribagh

(b) Singhbhum, Monghyr, Singareni

(c) Jharia, Raniganj, Wardha

(d) Singhbhum, Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar


Q63. Which of the following is a cash crop?

(a) Groundnut              

(b) Wheat

(c) Rice                          

(d) Gram


Q64. Stock farming refers to:

(a) Accent on agricultural production to build a buffer stock.

(b) Cooperative farming.

(c) Farming concentrating on the rearing of cattle’s and sheep.

(d) Large scale capital intensive commercial farming


Q65. Match the following:

       (Minerals)           (Major producer)

A. Mineral oil               1. Australia

B. Copper                    2. South Africa

C. Manganese           3. Chile

D. Bauxite                    4. USA

       A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 3 4 2 1


Q66. Isohyets are the lines drawn on a map connecting points having:

(a) Equal temperature

(b) Equal height

(c) Equal atmospheric pressure

(d) Equal rainfall


Q67. Pumice is derived from:

(a) Volcanic rock              

(b) Sedimentary rock

(c) Igneous rock             

(d) Acid lava


Q68. High tides at antipodes are caused due to:

(a) Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun

(b) Gravitational pull of the sun

(c) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun

(d) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun and the moon


Q69. What is a continental shelf?

(a) It is a part of the ocean which is really an extension of the land mass, but submerged

(b) It is that part where the ocean commences

(c) It is a land mass which is surrounded by water on all sides

(d) It is a part of the continent that is submerged in relatively shallow sea


Q70. Match the following:

(Volcanic Mountain)           (Country)

A. Mt. Rainier                          1. Italy

B. Etna                                       2. Mexico

C. Paricutin                             3. Philippines

D. Taal                                       4. USA

      A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 1 4 2 3

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 1 4 3 2


Q71. The National Highway – 1 connects:

(a) Bombay to Calcutta

(b) Delhi to Calcutta

(c) Bombay to Delhi

(d) Delhi to Amritsar


Q72. Shifting cultivators normally grow:

(a) A single crop which is mainly consumed

(b) The major crop along with cereals

(c) Cash crops along with fodder              

(d) Grains, vegetables and tubers in rotation


Q73. Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India has rift valley due to down warping?

(a) Damodar              

(b) Mahanadi

(c) Sone                        

(d) Yamuna


Q74. Which of the following listings are correct? Cash Crop – Plantation Crop – Horticulture Crop:

1. Tobacco, Coconut, Sugarcane.

2. Sugarcane, Coffee, Coconut.

3. Cotton, Tea, Cashew.

Coconut, Rubber, Tobacco.

(a) 1 and 2                 

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3                 

(d) 3 and 4


Q75. International Date Line:

(a) Roughly corresponds to 180th meridian, the regions to the east of which are counted as being one day earlier in their calendar dates than regions to the west.

(b) Roughly corresponds to 180th meridian, the region to the west of which are counted as being one day earlier in their calendar dates than regions to the east.

(c) Roughly corresponds to 90th meridian which falls on the opposite side of the Greenwich meridian.

(d) Roughly corresponds to 135th meridian which falls on the opposite side of the Greenwich meridian.


Q76. Ramanuja Acharya preached on:

(a) Dharma         

(b) Moksha

(c) Bhakti                  

(d) None of these


Q77. Which of the following statements is correct about Guru Nanak?

(a) He preached that “God is one”.

(b) He preached against Muslims.

(c) He preached dualism.

(d) He preached punishment for wicked.


Q78. Which of the following throws light on Harappan Culture?

(a) Archaeological excavations

(b) The script on copper sheets

(c) Rock edicts

(d) All of the above


Q79. Arrange the following in a chronological order:

1. Foundation of Muslim League

2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

3. Khilafat Movement

4. Civil Disobedience Movement

(a) 1-3-2-4         

(b) 1-2-3-4

(c) 4-2-1-3         

(d) 2-4-1-3


Q80. Swaraj Party was formed after the failure of:

(a) Quit India Movement

(b) Satyagraha Movement

(c) Non-cooperation Movement

(d) Civil Disobedience Movement


Q81. Indianisation of the Civil Services was done by:

(a) Lord Ripon                      

(b) Lord Mayo

(c) Lord Lytton                     

(d) Lord Reading


Q82. Montague Chelmsford Reforms relate to:

(a) Diarchy                            

(b) Communalism

(c) Provincial autonomy  

(d) none of the above


Q83. Lord Cornwallis introduced:

(a) Zamindari system     

(b) Mahalwari system

(c) Mansabdari system  

(d) None of the above


Q84. Arrange the following in a chronological order:

1. Dandi March

2. Simon Commission

3. Poona Pact

4. Gandhi Irwin Pact

(a) 1 2 3 4             

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 2 1 4 3             

(d) 1 2 4 3


Q85. Why did Md-bin-Tughlaq change his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad/Deogiri?

(a) Because he wanted to improve trade in Deccan

(b) Because he wanted to spread Islam in the Deccan

(c) Because he wanted to punish the people of Delhi

(d) Because he wanted to escape from Mongolian invasion


Q86. Which statement about Amir Khusrau is not true?

(a) He worked for the Hindu Muslim Unity

(b) He was a great poet

(c) He was a great historian

(d) He wrote poetry in Hindi and Urdu


Q87. What was not the most important feature of land revenue system of Akbar?

(a) Collection of land revenue in kind or cash

(b) Collection of land revenue based on accurate measurement of land

(c) Collection of land revenue directly at the central treasury

(d) Fixation of rates


Q88. Who were ‘Jagirdars’ during the reign of Akbar?

(a) Large estate owners

(b) Officials of state who were given ‘jagir’ in place of cash

(c) Revenue collectors

(d) Autonomous rulers under Akbar


Q89. Lord Cornwallis introduced:

(a) Zamindari system

(b) Mahalwari system

(c) Mansabdari system

(d) None of the above


Q90. Railway and Telegraphy systems were introduced in India by:

(a) Lord Dalhousie              

(b) Lord Cornwallis

(c) Lord Bentinck                 

(d) Lord Wellesley


Q91. The President of India National Congress at the time of partition of India was:

(a) C Rajagopalachari

(b) J B Kripalani

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad


Q92. Who among the following led the Sepoys at Kanpur in the 1857 uprising?

(a) Tantia Tope         

(b) Lakshmibai

(c) Nana Sahib          

(d) Kunwar Singh


Q93. Which one of the following submitted in 1875 a petition to the House of Commons demanding India’s direct representation in the British Parliament?

(a) The Deccan Association

(b) The Indian Association

(c) The Madras Mahajan Sabha

(d) The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha


Q94. The Brahmo Samaj is based on the principles of:

(a) Monotheism                

(b) Polytheism

(c) Atheism                         

(d) Monism


Q95. Main preaching’s of Buddha were in regard to:

(a) Right faith and conduct      

(b) Love of God

(c) Practice of rituals                   

(d) Idol worship


Q96. Which one of the following ports handled the north Indian trade during the Gupta period?

(a) Tamralipti            

(b) Broach

(c) Kalyan                   

(d) Cambay


Q97. Arrange the following Buddhist councils in a chronological order:

1. Vaishali

2. Rajgriha

3. Patliputra

4. Srinagar

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2               

(b) 3, 2, 1, 4

(c) 4, 1, 2, 3              

(d) 2, 1, 3, 4


Q98. Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Sakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism because:

(a) Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time

(b) They had renounced the policy of war and violence

(c) Caste ridden Hinduism did not attract them

(d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society


Q99. Indus Valley Civilisation was spread over:

(a) Baluchistan, Sind, Punjab and Rajasthan

(b) Sind, Punjab and Kashmir

(c) Afghanistan, Sind, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Kashmir

(d) None of these


Q100. ‘Ghuzak’ is the name of a place where:

(a) Jayapala met his enemy Sabuktigin

(b) Mahmud crushed defeat on Jayapala

(c) Jayapala died

(d) None of the above

Mock Test - 1 Answer