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Free Mock Test - 4

No. of Questions: 100                             Time: 2 Hrs

Number of Questions: 100

Time: 2 Hours

Q1. Variable reserve rates and Open Market Operations are instruments of:

(a) Fiscal Policy                     

(b) Monetary Policy

(c) Budgetary Policy            

(d) Trade Policy


Q2. Stagflation refers to:

(a) Constant rate of inflation

(b) Low inflation with high recession

(c) High inflation with low recession

(d) Stagnation and inflation


Q3. In India, inflation is measured by the:

(a) Wholesale Price Index Number

(b) Consumers Price Index for urban non-manual workers

(c) Consumers Price Index for agricultural workers

(d) National Income deflation


Q4. Reserve Bank of India defines Narrow Money as:

(a) CU (currency notes + coins) + DD (net demand deposits held by commercial banks).

(b) CU + DD + Saving deposits with post office savings banks.

(c) CU + DD + Net time deposits of commercial Banks.

(d) CU + DD + Net time deposits of commercial banks + total deposits of post office.


Q5. To which of the following sectors of the economy, the activity of agriculture and services belong to?

(a) Primary and Tertiary respectively

(b) Primary and Secondary respectively

(c) Tertiary and Quaternary respectively

(d) Secondary and Quaternary respectively


Q6. A zero rate of Inflation obtains necessarily in a year where the annual rate of inflation:

(a) in every week of the year is zero

(b) is falling in every week of the year

(c) is both falling and rising in a year

(d) is constant in every week of the year


Q7. Standard of living of a nation can be judged by:

(a) Increase in GNP at factor cost

(b) Increase in GNP at cost including taxes and duties

(c) Increase in NNP at factor cost

(d) None of the above


Q8. Eurodollars are:

(a) a currency issued by European Monetary Union

(b) special currency issued by federal government of U.S.A. to be used only in Europe

(c) U.S. dollars circulating In Europe

(d) European currencies exchanged for the U.S. dollar in U.S.


Q9. National Income is the:

(a) Net National Product at market price

(b) Net National Product at factor cost

(c) Net Domestic Product at market price

(d) Net Domestic Product at factor cost


Q10. Which one of the following sets of economists strongly favoured a market economy?

(a) Adam Smith, Keynes, Hicks

(b) Adam Smith, Marx, Strumlin

(c) Adam Smith, Hayek, Friedman

(d) Adam Smith, Ricardo, J.K. Galbraith


Q11. Temporary control of inflation can be affected by:

(a) Increasing the prices             

(b) Increasing the taxes

(c) Restraint on the growth       

(d) reducing the prices


Q12. A deflator is a technique of:

(a) Adjusting for changes in price level       

(b) Adjusting for change in commodity

(c) Accounting for decline of GNP                

(d) Accounting for higher increase of GNP


Q13. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been made in the:

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy        

(b) Preamble to the Constitution

(c) Fundamental Duties                                     

(d) Fundamental Rights


Q14. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains:

(a) States and Union Territories

(b) Salaries of the President, Governors of States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc.

(c) Union List, State’ List and Concurrent List

(d) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha


Q15. Holding of elections for the Panchayats is decided by:

(a) The District Magistrate          

(b) Constitutional mandate

(c) The State Government           

(d) The Election Commission


Q16. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under:

(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion             

(b) the Right against Exploitation

(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights       

(d) the Right to Equality


Q17. which of the following statements regarding judiciary in India are correct?

1. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and influence of legislature and executive.

2. Subordinate courts are at the head of the judicial hierarchy of the state.

3. The Chief Justice and other judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

4. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court and can deal with the case itself if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial point of constitutional law.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2                     

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 and 4                     

(d) 2, 3 and 4


Q18. Parliament consists of:

(a) Prime Minister and other Ministers

(b) President and Prime Minister

(c) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

(d) President, Chief Justice and Lok Sabha


Q19. the power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

(a) Advisory jurisdiction

(b) Appellate jurisdiction

(c) Original jurisdiction             

(d) Constitutional jurisdiction


Q20. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to the:

(a) Parliament                         

(b) President

(c) Prime Minister                   

(d) Chief Justice


Q21. In India political parties are given recognition by:

(a) President                              

(b) Law Commission

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Election Commission


Q22. In a political party of 42 members, the minimum number of members needed to split for disqualifying the original political party as per Anti Defection Law should be:

(a) 14               

(b) 22

(c) 21                

(d) 28


Q23. Consider the following functionaries:

1. Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is:

(a) 3-4-2-1                    

(b) 4-3-1-2

(c) 4-3-2-1                       

(d) 3-4-1-2


Q24. Constitution does not recognise the caste system because:

(a) India is secular                             

(b) It leads to inequality which is against the Constitution

(c) It leads to untouchability           

(d) All of the above


Q25. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?

1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.

2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only                             

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2                 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q26. Match the following:

(Biosphere Reserve)            (States)

A. Simlipal                            1. Sikkim

B. Dehang – Debang       2. Meghalaya

C. Nokrek                             3. Arunachal Pradesh

D. Kanchenjunga             4. Orissa

      A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 4 3 2 1


Q27. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Agasthyamalai                    

(b) Nallamalai

(c) Nilgiri                                     

(d) Panchmarhi


Q28. Consider the following statements:

1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.

2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one third of the area of India under tree/forest cover.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                                

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2                   

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q29. Match the following:

(National Park/ Sanctuary)           (State)

1. Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary          1. Orissa

2. Kanger Ghati National Park       2. Assam

3. Orang Sanctuary                          3. Chhattisgarh

4. Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary   4. Goa

      A B C D

(a) 2 1 5 3

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 2 3 5 1

(d) 4 1 2 3


Q30. Consider the following statements

1. It is located in the Aravalli Hills and is the first tiger reserve to have successfully relocated Royal Bengal tigers in India.

2. It is known for populations of tigers, leopards, Nilgai, Sambar, chital etc. and shelters a large population of Indian peafowl, crested serpent eagles.

3. The Reserve is strewn with ruins of ancient temples dating back to the 10th and 11th centuries including the ruins of the Kankwari Fort and the 10th century Neelkanth temples.

Identify the Reserve that correctly matches with the above description:

(a) Sariska Tiger Reserve

(b) Satkosia Tiger Reserve

(c) Amrabad Tiger Reserve

(d) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve


Q31. Consider the following statements:

1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.

2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer.

3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2                   

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 only                      

(d) 3 only


Q32. Consider the following statements:

1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.

2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.

3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3              

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3               

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q33. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest cover?

(a) Sikkim                     

(b) Goa

(c) Haryana                

(d) Kerala


Q34. Match the following:

(National Park/Sanctuary)              (State)

A. Kanger Ghati National Park  1. Chhattisgarh

B. Nagerhole National Park  2. Haryana

C. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary  3. Himachal Pradesh

D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary   4. Karnataka

      A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 1 4 3 2

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 1 2 3 4


Q35. Consider the following statements:

1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.

2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.

Which of these statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                            

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2               

(d) neither 1 nor 2


Q36. What is the correct chronological order of the following?

1. First Round Table Conference

2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

3. Simon Commission

4. Cripps Mission

(a) 3-1-2-4                  

(b) 1-2-3-4

(c) 2-1-3-4               

(d) 4-3-2-1


Q37. What was the objective of Home Rule Movement?

(a) Self-government at all levels

(b) Eradication of evils like Sati in the Indian community

(c) Participation in Indian National Movement

(d) Boycott of foreign goods


Q38. Who was the person behind conversion of East India Company from a trading company into a regional power?

(a) Lord Warren Hastings       

(b) Lord Clive

(c) Lord Dalhousie                     

(d) Lord Wellesley


Q39. Who among the following being a renowned poet as well as good painter?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore       

(b) Amrita Shergill

(c) Abanindranath Tagore      

(d) Sarojini Naidu


Q40. Who established four ‘Maths’ in four corners of India?

(a) Bhaskara                              

(b) Shankaracharya

(c) Ramanujacharya        

(d) None of these


Q41. Who inscribed the name of Khalifa of Baghdad on his coins?

(a) Allauddin Khilji            

(b) Iltutmish

(c) Qutubuddin                 

(d) Balban


Q42. Saka era commenced from:

(a) 78 A.D.             

(b) 120 A.D.

(c) 1000 A.D.          

(d) 1953 A.D.


Q43. Who among the following, was the President of the All India States’ Peoples’ Conference in 1939?

(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Swami Sahajanand           

(d) Rajendra Prasad


Q44. Lord Wellesley greatly extended the British dominion in India through:

(a) Doctrine of Lapse                              

(b) Subsidiary Alliance

(c) Partitioning of Indian States         

(d) Annexing the princely States


Q45. The Swaraj Party was founded by Motilal Nehru in:

(a) 1947             

(b) 1952

(c) 1923             

(d) 1929


Q46. ‘Go back to the Vedas’ was the motto of:

(a) Swami Vivekananda

(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(c) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

(d) M. G. Ranade


Q47. Which of the following Muslim rulers enforced price control system?

(a) Allauddin Khilji 

(b) Mohammed bin Tughlaq

(c) Iltutmish             

(d) Balban


Q48. “Mansabdar” in Mughal period were:

(a) Landlords and Zamindars

(b) Officials of the state

(c) Those who had to give revenue

(d) Revenue collectors


Q49. What was the purpose of Mohammad Ghazni’s attack on India?

(a) To rule over the territories of India

(b) To spread Islam in India

(c) To plunder the wealth of India

(d) None of these


Q50. What was the main reason for the fall of Vijayanagar Empire?

(a) Internal instability and weakness of Princes

(b) Unity among the Muslim rulers

(c) Moplah’s rebellion

(d) Economic bankruptcy


Q51. Who amongst the following Englishmen, first translated Bhagavad Gita into English?

(a) William Jones                      

(b) Charles Wilkins

(c) Alexander Cunningham  

(d) John Marshall


Q52. Which of the following Acts was introduced by the British to remove the shortcomings of the Regulating Act?

(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784                      

(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919

(c) The Charter Act of, 1793                

(d) Government of India Act, 1919


Q53. “The Arctic Home of the Vedas” was written by:

(a) Dayananda Saraswati

(b) Acharya Vinoba Bhave

(c) Swami Vivekananda

(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak


Q54. Which of the following statements is true about Annie Besant?

1. She was the President of Indian National Congress

2. She was the founder of the Asiatic Society

3. She was the founder of the Theosophical Society

(a) 1 and 2 only           

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 only                              

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q55. Jainism differed from Buddhism in which of the following aspects?

(a) Faith in Karma        

(b) Doctrine of Ahimsa

(c) Belief in fasting          

(d) Rejection of Yagna


Q56. The last in the succession of Jaina Tirthankaras was:

(a) Parsvanatha          

(b) Rishabha

(c) Mahavira                   

(d) Manisubrata


Q57. Which dynasty was well known for excellent village administration?

(a) Pandyas              

(b) Pallavas

(c) Cholas                  

(d) Chalukyas


Q58. which of the following presents the most significant features of Indus Valley Civilisation?

(a) Buildings with perfect arches

(b) Use of burnt mud bricks

(c) Use of sun-dried mud bricks

(d) none of these


Q59. The Prakrit text “Gathasaptasati” is attributed to the Satavahana king:

(a) Vasishtiputra Pulumavi        

(b) Hala

(c) Gautamiputra Satkarni         

(d) Amaru


Q60. The term ‘Aryan’ denotes:

(a) an ethnic group            

(b) a nomadic people

(c) a speech groups         

(d) a superior race


Q61. In which type of rocks, fossils are more abundantly found?

(a) Igneous rock                 

(b) Metamorphic rock

(c) Sedimentary rock        

(d) None of these


Q62. Doldrums refers to:

(a) A belt of calm and light variable winds near the equator

(b) A particular area in the centre of the Pacific Ocean

(c) The region in the temperate zone

(d) None of these


Q63. A narrow strip of land, bordered on both sides by water, connecting to larger bodies of land is called:

(a) Dune               

(b) Equinox

(c) Isthmus           

(d) Strait


Q64. Heavy rainfall affects soil by:

(a) Increasing its acidity         

(b) Increasing its alkalinity

(c) Reducing its fertility           

(d) None of these


Q65. The rising of evening star Venus indicates:

(a) South Pole           

(b) North Pole

(c) East                         

(d) West


Q66. Which of the following crops has the highest photosynthetic activity?

(a) Cotton              

(b) Sugarcane

(c) Rice                     

(d) Wheat


Q67. Mixed cropping is useful when:

(a) Crops with varying maturity periods are sown together.

(b) Crops with same maturity period are sown together.

(c) Different soils are used for the same crops.

(d) Crops with different nutritional requirements are grown.


Q68. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in:

(a) Baluchistan           

(b) Myanmar

(c) Nepal                       

(d) Kashmir


Q69. Which of the following is the correct group of Kharif crops?

(a) Rice, Millet, Maize, Cotton

(b) Groundnut, Bajra, Barley, Sorghum

(c) Jowar, Bajra, Rice, Cotton, Jute, Gram

(d) Wheat, Barley, Gram, Mustard


Q70. Which of the following rivers flows westward?

(a) Krishna                  

(b) Cauvery

(c) Mahanadi             

(d) Narmada


Q71. Match the following:

(Hazardous industries)                (Location)

A. Glass industry                        1. Moradabad

B. Brassware industry             2. Markapur

C. Slate industry                        3. Firozabad

D. Carpet industry                    4. Mirzapur

      A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 1 3 4 2


Q72. In which State of India is coconut grown extensively?

(a) Karnataka            

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Kerala                          

(d) Assam


Q73. Which one of the following is known as the “Coffee port” of the world?

(a) Sao Paulo                       

(b) Port of Santos

(c) Rio de Janeiro               

(d) Buenos Aires


Q74. Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda?

(a) Lake Chad                  

(b) Lake Malawi

(c) Lake Victoria                 

(d) Lake Zambezi


Q75. Match the following:

    Product             Producers

A. Olives                  1. USA

B. Cotton                2. Italy

C. Tomato              3. Brazil

D. Coffee                4. China

      A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 4 1 3


Q76. In which year was the ‘NITI Aayog’ set up in India?

(a) 2015                  

(b) 2019

(c) 2016                  

(d) 2018


Q77. What is the theme of Global Financial Development Report, 2019-20?

(a) Hunger and poverty

(b) Bank Regulation and Supervision a Decade after the Global Financial Crisis

(c) Financial inclusion

(d) Global recession and the Third World


Q78. The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is celebrated on?

(a) 10th December          

(b) 5th December

(c) 19th November           

(d) 3rd December


Q79. Amnesty International is an organization which is associated with:

(a) Protection of women’s rights

(b) Protection of human rights

(c) Abolition of untouchability

(d) None of the above


Q80. ‘Prince of Wales Cup’ is associated with the game of?

(a) Hockey                

(b) Cricket

(c) Football               

(d) Golf


Q81. What does infant mortality rate refer to?

(a) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births

(b) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 1000 live births

(c) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births

(d) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births


Q82. The Iran-Pakistan Gas pipeline is also called as:

(a) Friendship pipeline        

(b) Future pipeline

(c) Peace pipeline                     

(d) Unity pipeline


Q83. Which award is given for excellence in sports?

(a) Jamnalal Bajaj Award  

(b) Arjuna Award

(c) Tagore Award                  

(d) Murtidevi Award


Q84. Commercial sources of energy purely consist of:

(a) power, coal, oil, gas, hydro-electricity and uranium

(b) coal, oil, firewood, vegetable waste and agricultural waste

(c) power, coal, animal dung and firewood

(d) coal, gas, oil and firewood


Q85. India’s Third Research Centre at Antarctica is name as:

(a) Bharti                      

(b) Swagatam

(c) Hindustan              

(d) Maître


Q87. Which one of the following is secreted by Pancreas and regulates the amount of sugar in the body?

(a) Renin                      

(b) Creatinine

(c) Vitamin                  

(d) Insulin


Q88. Influence of genes in controlling the activity of living organisms is through:

(a) Enzymes                  

(b) Hormones

(c) Vitamins                  

(d) Protein synthesis


Q89. Which of the following elements are present in all proteins?

1. Carbon

2. Hydrogen

3. Oxygen

4. Nitrogen

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3                   

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3                 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Q90. In High Mountain regions bleeding through nose occurs because:

(a) The pressure of the blood capillaries is higher than the outside pressure

(b) The pressure at high altitudes is greater than that in the plains

(c) The blood pressure increases at high altitudes

(d) The blood pressure decreases at high altitudes


Q91. Why mothers feed the child with Vitamin A?

(a) To prevent beriberi                       

(b) To prevent rickets    

(c) To prevent night blindness        

(d) To prevent Kwashiorkor


Q92. Growing children require comparatively more:

(a) Proteins                        

(b) Carbohydrates

(c) Vitamins                       

(d) All of these


Q93. Heart patients should avoid taking excess of:

(a) Proteins                        

(b) Fats

(c) Vitamins                       

(d) Carbohydrates


Q94. It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night because of the:

(a) Release of oxygen in lesser amount         

(b) Release of oxygen in larger amount

(c) Release of carbon monoxide                       

(d) Release of carbon dioxide


Q95. If a large number of people are enclosed in a room, then:

(a) Oxygen decreases and carbon dioxide increases

(b) Oxygen increases and carbon dioxide decrease

(c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide decrease

(d) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide increase


Q96. It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by:

(a) spraying hormones on flowers

(b) spraying mineral solution on plants

(c) applying trace elements in tomato fields

(d) applying fertilizers containing radioactive elements


Q97. Which of the following would lead to ‘malnutrition’?

1. Overnutrition

2. Undernutrition

3. Imbalanced nutrition

Select the correct answer by using the codes gives below:

(a) 1 and 2           

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3           

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q98. Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of nutritional value found in milk include:

(a) calcium and potassium

(b) calcium, potassium and iron

(c) potassium and iron

(d) calcium and iron


Q99. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through:

1. Lungs

2. Blood

3. Tissue

The correct sequence of transportation is:

(a) 1-2-3               

(b) 3-1-2

(c) 2-1-3               

(d) 1-3-2


Q100. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called:

(a) pulmonary arteries     

(b) coronary arteries

(c) hepatic arteries            

(d) carotid arteries

Mock Test - 1 Answer