Free Mock Test - 5 | Hindi & English|Best Test Series Online

No. of Questions: 100 Time: 2 Hrs

Number of Questions: 100

Time: 2 Hours

Q1. which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

(a) 51

(b) 48 A

(c) 43 A

(d) 41

Q2. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List:

(a) By wish of the President

(b) If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority

(c) Under any circumstances

(d) By asking the legislature of the State concerned

**Q3. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Local Government in India?**

(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system.

(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women.

(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission.

(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission.

Q4. Freedom of the Press in India:

(a) is specifically provided in Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution.

(b) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.

(c) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution.

(d) Emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law In the country.

Q5. Sarkaria Commission was set up to:

(a) Investigate about the riots that took place in Delhi in 1984

(b) Maintain Centre-State relationship

(c) Make necessary investigations and suggestions regarding the problem of Punjab

(d) Investigate about the assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi

Q6. which one of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?

(a) Fisheries

(b) Agriculture

(c) Insurance

(d) Betting and Gambling

Q7. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup?

(a) Single tier structure of local self-government at the village level

(b) Two-tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels

(c) Three-tier structure of local self-government, at the village, block and district levels

(d) Four-tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels

Q8. Right to Freedom of Speech in India may be restricted, if the freedom is used to:

(a) Incite people to violence

(b) Propagate nationalisation of the private sector

(c) Level charges of corruption against those in power

(d) Spread superstition

Q9. Assertion (A): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.

Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Q10. the Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of:

(a) USA

(b) Canada

(c) Ireland

(d) UK

Q11. Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India Provides that,

1. The Legislative Assembly of each State shallconsist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.

2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q12. What is the maximum period during which Parliament may not meet?

(a) Six months

(b) One year

(c) Two years

(d) Three years

Q13. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the Supreme Court?

(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States

(b) Disputes between the States inter-se

(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights

(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution

Q14. Among the following, which one is not an ape?

(a) Gibbon

(b) Gorilla

(c) Langur

(d) Orangutan

Q15. Consider the following statements:

1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits in one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.

2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) neither 1 nor 2

Q16. Consider the following statements:

1. Saltwater crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q17. Which one of the following is not a site for in situ method of conservation of flora?

(a) Biosphere reserve

(b) Botanical garden

(c) National park

(d) Wildlife sanctuary

Q18. Consider the following:

1. Carbon dioxide.

2. Oxides of nitrogen.

3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Q19. Which among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Assam

(d) Meghalaya

Q20. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?

(a) Simlipal National Park

(b) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary

(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary

Q21. Which one of the following is located is located in the Bastar region?

(a) Bandhavgarh National Park

(b) Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary

(c) Rajaji National Park

(d) Indravati National Park

Q22. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Red Panda is naturally found in the Western Himalayas only.

2. In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense forests of the North East.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q23. Match the following:

(Wildlife Sanctuary) (Nearby Town)

A. Chandra Prabha 1. Jaipur

B. Karera 2. Shivpuri

C. Jaisamand 3. Udaipur

D. Nahargarh 4. Varanasi

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 1 4 2 3

(c) 4 2 3 1

(d) 4 1 3 2

Q24. Which tax is not levied by the Central Government?

(a) Wealth tax

(b) Profession tax

(c) Income tax

(d) Excise duty

Q25. Invisible trade is a trade:

(a) Of corporate and financial institutions with government.

(b) Of government with public institutions

(c) Of government with other countries.

(d) Of the services like the banks, marine companies and shipping Companies

Q26. First Five Year Plan laid stress on:

(a) Agriculture

(b) Industry

(c) Services

(d) Green revolution

Q27. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to:

(a) SEBI

(b) RBI

(c) SBI

(d) SBI

Q28. Gilt edged market means:

(a) Bullion market

(b) Market of Government securities

(c) Market of guns

(d) Market of pure metals

Q29. “Socialistic Pattern” comes through:

(a) Free Economy

(b) Mixed Economy

(c) Public Sector

(d) None of these

Q30. The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India?

1. Currency with the Public

2. Demand deposits with banks

3. Time deposits with banks

4. Other deposits with RBI

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q31. Which one of the following functions of the Reserve Bank of India is not performed by the other banks?

(a) Making advances to agriculturists

(b) Dealing in foreign exchange

(c) Industrial Refinancing

(d) Acting as the banker to the Government

Q32. Regional Rural Banks are designed to work in which one of the following ideals?

(a) Work on basics of Commercial Banks

(b) Help the targeted groups

(c) Keep lending rates lower than cooperative institutions

(d) Work on innovative and adaptive ideals

Q33. The Reserve Bank of India was established in:

(a) 1935

(b) 1947

(c) 1952

(d) 1950

Q34. What is the likely impact of decrease of population on economy?

(a) Decrease in savings

(b) Decrease in per capita income

(c) Increase in investment

(d) Increase in per capita income

Q35. What is the cause of inflation?

(a) Decrease in money supply and fall in production

(b) Fall in production

(c) Increase in money supply and fall in production

(d) Increase in money supply

Q36. Which one of the following was the cause of disintegration of the Mughal Empire?

(a) War of succession among sons of Aurangzeb

(b) Attacks of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali

(c) Revolts of various communities like Jats, Sikhs, Rajputs, etc.

(d) All of the above-mentioned factors contributed.

Q37. The succession of Delhi Sultans to the throne was generally:

(a) Hereditary

(b) After fight between each other’s

(c) By killing the father

(d) Invasion

Q38. The supremacy and sovereignty of ‘Khalifa’ of Baghdad was strictly observed by Muslim kings in India because:

(a) ‘Khalifa’ was treated as religious head of the Muslim community

(b) ‘Khalifa’ was treated as the legal head of the Muslim community

(c) All the Muslim States in the world used to pay tribute to him

(d) He used to decide all the cases efficiently

Q39. Alauddin Khilji maintained control on price during his reign because:

(a) He wanted to keep large army at lower expenses.

(b) He had mercy with poor people.

(c) He wanted to gain popularity.

(d) All of the above

Q40. Indian National Congress took the stand during Second World War that:

(a) It would support axis powers.

(b) It would support allied powers.

(c) It would cooperate with the British if India is promised dominion status after the war.

(d) It would cooperate with the British if India is granted complete Independence.

Q41. “Inqilab Zindabad” slogan was coined by:

(a) Chandra Shekhar Azad

(b) Subhash Chandra Bose

(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(d) Hasrat Mohani

Q42. Which of the following was not the occurred due to Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

(a) Suspension of Gen. Dyer

(b) Change in Gandhiji’s outlook towards Britishers

(c) Temporary peace in Punjab

(d) Renunciation of British titles and positions by many Indians

Q43. Which party was in power in U.K. when India became independent?

(a) Labour Party

(b) Conservative Party

(c) Liberal Party

(d) Democratic Party

Q44. What was the impact of Western Industrial Revolution on India?

(a) Handicrafts of India were ruined

(b) Machines were introduced in textile industry

(c) Heavy import duty was imposed on foreign goods

(d) All technical hands got employment

Q45. The DYARCHY was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919 postulated which of the following?

(a) A system of dual government in Bengal

(b) Backward classes were entitled to vote

(c) A few subjects were transferred to the Provincial Ministries and the rest retained by the Executive Council.

(d) Hindus and Muslims could vote separately

Q46. Which one of the following was the contemporary Bengal king during the time of Harsha of Kannauj?

(a) Bhaskaravarman

(b) Divakaramitra

(c) Sasanka

(d) Devagupta

Q47. Some Buddhist rock cut caves are called chaityas while the others viharas. What is the difference between the two?

(a) Chaitya is a place of worship while vihara is the dwelling place for the monks.

(b) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave while vihara is the hall axial to it.

(c) There is no material difference between them.

(d) Vihara is a place of worship while chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks

Q48. Which one of the following does not indicate regarding Kautilya’s Arthshastra as an ancient Indian Sanskrit treatise on?

(a) State craft

(b) Economic policy

(c) Ayurveda

(d) Military strategy

Q49. Which one of the following does not indicate the difference between Mahayana and Hinayana school of Buddhism?

(a) Belief in the Bodhisattvas

(b) Worship of the image of Buddha

(c) Use of the Sanskrit language

(d) Admission of women into the monasteries

**Q50. Which of the following statements about Hiuen Tsang is not true?**

(a) He visited India during the reign of Harshvardhan

(b) He spent some time at Nalanda University

(c) He advocated for strong Indo-China relations

(d) He influenced Buddhism

Q51. One of the major towns in the Satavahana kingdom was:

(a) Arikkamedu

(b) Pratishthana

(c) Korkkai

(d) Maski

Q52. What is the correct order of events in context of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

1. Rowlatt Act

2. Hunter Report

3. Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy

(a) 1-2-3

(b) 2-1-3

(c) 1-3-2

(d) 2-3-1

Q53. The Indian national movement became organised for the first time in:

(a) 1885-86

(b) 1857-58

(c) 1905-06

(d) 1917-18

Q54. The wrongly matched pair among the following is:

(a) Gandhiji – Dandi March

(b) Mohammed Ali Jinnah – Khilafat movement

(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan – Aligarh

(d) Subhash Chandra Bose – Forward Bloc

Q55. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Newspaper – Publisher/Editor

1. The Leader – Annie Besant

2. Yugantar – C. Y. Chintamani

3. Young India – Aurobindo Ghosh

4. Commonweal – M. K. Gandhi

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) None of the above

Q56. Quit India Movement was launched in:

(a) 1936

(b) 1941

(c) 1942

(d) 1947

**Q57. Which of the following pairs is Incorrect?**

(a) Lal, Bal, Pal —Extremist Group

(b) Annie Besant —Home Rule movement

(c) Gandhi—Dandi March

(d) None of these

Q58. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of:

(a) Guptas

(b) Kushans

(c) Mauryas

(d) Chalukyas

Q59. Musical instrument used by Amir Khusrau was:

(a) Sarangi

(b) Sarod

(c) Tabla

(d) Flute

Q60. Which of the following is not included in Mughal paintings?

(a) Portraits

(b) Islamic themes

(c) Flowers and plants

(d) Hunting scenes

Q61. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change deals with:

(a) Reduction in fossil fuel usage

(b) SO₂ emissions mitigation

(c) Reduction in Uranium production

(d) Greenhouse gases emissions mitigation

Q62. Who is the new Secretary General of the United Nations?

(a) Matthew Rycroft

(b) Anibal Cavaco Silva

(c) Antonio Guterres

(d) Vitaly Churkin

Q63. Which of the following countries has recently joined the Hague Code of Conduct [HCOC], a global initiative to prevent ballistic missile proliferation?

(a) Palestine

(b) Israel

(c) India

(d) Iran

Q64. Which of the following is the newest member of the Eurozone?

(a) Lithuania

(b) Croatia

(c) Bulgaria

(d) Cyprus

Q65. India’s first and Asia’s longest cycle highway has been opened in which State of India?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Bihar

(d) Assam

Q66. India’s first textile university will be set up in which of the following states?

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(c) Gujarat

(d) Odisha

Q67. Which train safety system has recently been launched by the Indian Railways to avoid train accidents?

(a) Tri-Safety

(b) Tri-Netra

(c) Tri-Network

(d) Tri-Veil

Q68. Indian Human Development Report does not give for each sample village:

(a) Infrastructure and Amenities Index

(b) Education Related Index

(c) Health Related Index

(d) Unemployment Related Index

Q69. Which of the following Asian languages are UN official languages?

(a) Chinese and Japanese

(b) Chinese and Arabic

(c) Japanese and Arabic

(d) Chinese and Hindi

Q70. Which country is known as the ‘Land of the Morning Calm’?

(a) Japan

(b) Korea

(c) Taiwan

(d) Netherlands

Q71. A person with which blood group will be a universal receiver?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) O

(d) AB

Q72. Dysentery and Influenza are caused by:

(a) Bacteria

(b) Protozoa

(c) Bacteria and Viruses respectively

(d) Viruses and Bacteria respectively

Q73. Which organ is associated with the production of insulin in the human body?

(a) Heart

(b) Liver

(c) Kidney

(d) Pancreas

Q74. When light enters a closed room through a small hole in the door, the image of an outside building appears as inverted on the opposite wall. This is because:

(a) Of rectilinear propagation of light

(b) The hole acts as a convex lens

(c) The hole acts as a concave lens

(d) Light takes curvature at the edges of the hole

Q75. How the body temperature is maintained?

(a) Due to temperature regulating mechanism located in the base of the brain.

(b) Due to excessive intake of water.

(c) Due to regular intake of foods.

(d) Due to the constant flow of blood in the capillaries.

Q76. The genetic code can be translated through an intermediate, adaptor molecule by:

(a) ADP

(b) mRNA

(c) ATP

(d) tRNA

Q77. The deficiency of causes goitre:

(a) Protein

(b) Iodine

(c) Calcium

(d) Vitamin B

Q78. The rich source of iron is:

(a) Eggs

(b) Green vegetables

(c) Pulses

(d) Milk

Q79. Which of the following is a balanced fertiliser for plants?

(a) Urea

(b) Ammonia sulphate

(c) Compost

(d) Nitrates

Q80. During processing and cooking which part of food is mostly destroyed?

(a) Proteins

(b) Fats

(c) Carbohydrates

(d) Vitamins

Q81. Fat present below the skin surface in our body, acts as a barrier against:

(a) loss of salts from the body.

(b) loss of essential body fluids.

(c) loss of heat from the body.

(d) entry of harmful microorganisms from the environment.

Q82. Which one of the following crops enriches the nitrogen content in soil?

(a) Potato

(b) Sorghum

(c) Sunflower

(d) Pea

Q83. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the:

(a) lack of antigen in his blood

(b) lack of antibodies in his blood

(c) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood

(d) presence of antibodies in his blood

Q84. Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because:

(a) their blooming is controlled by low temperature

(b) they are sensitive to the phases of moon

(c) the desert insects eat away flowers during day-time

(d) the desert insects are active during night-time

Q85. The hormones containing iodine is?

(a) Adrenaline

(b) Testosterone

(c) Insulin

(d) Thyroxine

Q86. Match the columns:

Earth’s Layer Elements

A. Mantle 1. Magnesium

B. Upper layer of the earth’s crust 2. SiMa

C. Light rocks of the lithosphere 3. Bill

D.Small Peninsula 4. SiAl

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

Q87. Different seasons are formed because:

(a) Sun is moving around the earth

(b) Of revolution of the earth around the sun on its orbit

(c) Of rotation of the earth around its axis

(d) All of the above

Q88. Extrusive (Intrusive) rocks are forms of:

(a) Igneous rocks

(b) Sedimentary rocks

(c) Metamorphic rocks

(d) None of the above

Q89. Mean Sea Level (MSL) is the:

(a) Average level of the sea

(b) Height of water above ground level

(c) Average height of waves

(d) None of the above

Q90. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing size of the grains of soil particles?

1. Clay

2. Silt

3. Sand

4. Gravel

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 4-3-1-2

(c) 2-3-1-4

(d) 3-4-2-1

Q91. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of fuelwood in the world?

(a) Indonesia

(b) Russia

(c) India

(d) China

Q92. Which one of the following port cities in Venezuela has been developed as an oil port?

(a) Caracas

(b) Maracaibo

(c) Maracay

(d) Carupano

Q93. the North Atlantic Sea route is regarded as an important international trade route because:

(a) It is the oldest sea route

(b) It connects two industrially developed parts of the world.

(c) Trade winds will help the shipping

(d) There are lesser number of sea storms in this water way.

Q94. Irrigation facilities should be improved in India because:

(a) Irrigation yields better output

(b) Monsoon is irregular

(c) Rivers are dry most of the period in the year

(d) Land under irrigation is very small

Q95. Which one of the following organisms can serve as a bio-fertiliser for rice crop?

(a) Blue-green algae

(b) Rhizobium sp

(c) Mycorrhizal fungi

(d) Azotobacter sp

Q96. Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly?

(a) Organic farming

(b) Shifting cultivation

(c) Cultivation of high-yielding Varieties

(d) Growing plants in glasshouses

Q97. Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one State in India?

(a) Aravalli

(b) Satpura

(c) Ajanta

(d) Sahyadri

Q98. The maximum percentage of the tribal population in India constitutes:

(a) Bhil

(b) Santhal

(c) Munda

(d) Naga

Q99. Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for a good cultivation of wheat?